Thursday, June 15, 2023

figure it out

You can pretty much do this one in your head:

My answer = in the comments.



at

1 comment:

  1. Kevin KimJune 15, 2023 at 2:23:00 AM GMT+9

    So, we have

    x^x - x^(1/x) = 0

    Which means

    x^x = x^(1/x)

    Since the bases are the same, we can discount them, so

    x = 1/x

    Multiply by x on both sides, and

    x^2 = 1

    So x = ±1.

    QED.

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