Thursday, June 15, 2023

figure it out

You can pretty much do this one in your head:

My answer = in the comments.



Share |
Posted by Kevin Kim at 6/15/2023 02:20:00 AM

1 comment:

Kevin Kim said...

So, we have

x^x - x^(1/x) = 0

Which means

x^x = x^(1/x)

Since the bases are the same, we can discount them, so

x = 1/x

Multiply by x on both sides, and

x^2 = 1

So x = ±1.

QED.

June 15, 2023 at 2:23:00 AM GMT+9

Post a Comment

Subscribe to: Post Comments (Atom)